Much has been said of Marx's supposed "racism" and Western-centric focus; it is obvious, at any rate, that his theories were designed to animate the proletariat of industrialized Western countries and he viewed the Slavic east as totally backwards and hopeless.
But it is overlooked by Marx's sympathizers (to the extent that they still exist) that not only was Marx's focal point concentrated on the West; his entire economic worldview and specifically his theory of "surplus labor"-- which Marx holds must rightfully be accrued to the worker instead of the capitalist-- is totally contingent on the existence of the Jus Publicum Europaeum and can apply only to the proletariats within its confines. So far as I can tell, nobody has really picked up on this fact besides Oswald Spengler, in a portion of The Hour Of Decision :
When the non-Western world closes the gap and inches towards parity in wages and technical sophistication, one would expect precisely the results experienced over the past few decades in the West: the stagnation of wages, chronic unemployment cycles, the rise of make-work labor supplied by the government, and the stratification of society towards pre-modern norms. Spengler understood this and warned in vain that the security of the Western economies and polities were dependent upon shunning the outside world from the fruits of technological development.
The modern liberal voter has appropriated Marx's theory of surplus value and tried to apply it towards the colored world ("better wages and transparency in the Pakistani garment industry!"), but he is unwilling to accept the fact than an improvement in colored wages necessarily results in downward pressures on his own wages and purchasing power. He believes naively that "everyone benefits" from the ascendancy of the third world, but it is obvious that Marx himself harbored no such delusions.